RE: Fx
From: Paul Hutson prhutson@pharmacy.wisc.edu
Subject: RE: [NMusers] Fx
Date: Tue, May 25, 2004 12:47 pm
Dear Katya, Nick and Bill:
Let us assume another case to test my understanding of your explanation.
Let us assume an orally administered controlled release system...
F1 would represent the bioavailability of the nominal dose of the product
that was delivered to the lumen of the gut.(yes?)
Let us assume the fraction released is 0.6
A fraction of this released, intraluminal drug is then absorbed into the
systemic circulation (let's ignore about first pass).
Let us assume that the fraction of intraluminal drug absorbed is 0.7.
I would normally consider F2 to be 0.7, however from your explanations, F2
would appear to be 0.6 x 0.7 = 0.42. (The relative amount of the dose
(AMT) that enters systemic circulation, CMT2). In a sense, the contribution
of F1 is hidden, which is typically the case in evaluating the relative
bioavailability of different products, in difference subjects. However, if
I could collect the oral dosage delivery device :-( and determine the
residual drug for that dose in that patient, I would then know by
difference the F1. Hence, my interest in whether F2 is specifically the
overall fraction of AMT that enters CMT2, or whether it is the fraction of
the amount in the CMT1 depot compartment (AMT*F1) that enters CMT2. It
strikes me than another example of this being relevant is in an animal
model with simultaneous sampling of the portal and hepatic veins modeling
the Fx associated with hepatic extraction.
Thanks!
Paul
Paul Hutson, Pharm.D.
Associate Professor (CHS)
UW School of Pharmacy
777 Highland Avenue
Madison, WI 53705-2222
Tel: (608) 263-2496
FAX: (608) 265-5421
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