Re: Mixture model simulation

From: Leonid Gibiansky Date: May 07, 2013 technical Source: mail-archive.com
should it be IF(MIXEST.EQ.2) Z=0 for the fitting run? -------------------------------------- Leonid Gibiansky, Ph.D. President, QuantPharm LLC web: www.quantpharm.com e-mail: LGibiansky at quantpharm.com tel: (301) 767 5566
Quoted reply history
On 5/7/2013 11:31 AM, Paul Hutson wrote: > Dear Users: > I note the Jan 26, 2013 response to Nick Holford's query about results > from the use of the $MIX mixture model for simulation. I have created a > data set of N=100 subjects using R to randomly distribute their > covariates, both continuous and categorical. I then ran the following > sim with SUBPOP=1 to generate their corresponding DV values using the > following code: > ; SIMULATION CTL > $PROBLEM SIM 2COMP > $INPUT ID TIME AMT DV WT HT BMI BSA GFR AGE SEX TOB EVID > $DATA MethodSim1.CSV IGNORE=# > $SUBROUTINES ADVAN4 TRANS4 > $SIMULATION (12345) SUBPROBLEMS=1 ONLYSIMULATION > > $MIX > NSPOP=2 > P(1)=THETA(7) > P(2)=1.0-THETA(7) > > $PK > KA=THETA(1)* EXP(ETA(1)); ETA removed in subsequent fitting of data > CL1=THETA(2)*((WT/70)**0.75) ; non-renal clearance of subpop1 > CL2=THETA(3)*((WT/70)**0.75); non-renal clearance of subpop1 > CLr=(GFR*60/1000)*0.5 ; renal clearance > > Z=1 > IF(MIXNUM.EQ.2) Z=0 > CL=(Z*(CL1 + CLr) + (1.0-Z)*(CL2 + CLr))* EXP(ETA(2)) > V2 = THETA(4)*(WT/70)*EXP(ETA(3)) > > Q = THETA(5)*(WT/70)**0.75 > V3 =THETA(6)*(WT/70) > S2=V2 > > $ERROR > IPRE = F > W1=F > DEL = 0 > IF(IPRE.LT.0.001) DEL = 1 > IRES = DV-IPRE; NEGATIVE TREND IS OVERESTIMATING IPRED WRT DV > IWRE = IRES/(W1+DEL) > Y=F*(1+ERR(1)) > > $THETA (2); KAS > $THETA (0.1); CL1 > $THETA (5); CL2 > $THETA (5); VC > $THETA (12); Q > $THETA (40); VP > $THETA (0.4); FZ > > $OMEGA 0 FIXED; IEKA > $OMEGA 0 FIXED; IECL > $OMEGA 0 FIXED; IEV2 > > $SIGMA 0.03; > > $TABLE ID TIME AMT DV WT HT BMI BSA GFR AGE SEX TOB EVID NOPRINT > NOHEADER NOAPPEND FILE=SimData.txt > > However, when I come back and attempt to model the simulated data set, > my ETA1 on CL (note difference from the simulation ctl above) still > shows a bimodal distribution. With the incorporation of the $MIXture > model , I would expect a unimodal distribution of ETA_CL entered on 0. > Can the community please advise? > > ;FITTED CTL > $MIX > NSPOP=2 > P(1)=THETA(7) > P(2)=1.0-THETA(7) > > $PK > KA=THETA(1) > CL1=THETA(2)*((WT/70)**0.75) > CL2=THETA(3)*((WT/70)**0.75) > RS=THETA(8) > CLr=(GFR*60/1000)*RS > Z=1 > IF(MIXNUM.EQ.2) Z=0 > CL=((Z*CL1 + CLr) + ((1.0-Z)*CL2 + CLr))*EXP(ETA(1)) > V2 = THETA(4)*(WT/70)*EXP(ETA(2) > Q = THETA(5)*(WT/70)**0.75 > V3 =THETA(6)*(WT/70) > > Thanks > Paul
May 07, 2013 Paul Hutson Mixture model simulation
May 07, 2013 Leonid Gibiansky Re: Mixture model simulation
May 07, 2013 Mats Karlsson RE: Mixture model simulation
May 07, 2013 Erik Olofsen RE: Mixture model simulation