RE: Mixture model simulation

From: Erik Olofsen Date: May 07, 2013 technical Source: mail-archive.com
Dear Paul, All OMEGAs are zero during simulation? So I'm thinking about what that would mean for ETA_CL if is not fixed to zero when fitting; what would happen to ETA_CL if not all estimated subgroups are equal to the simulated ones, or the effect of a less than perfect fit on ETA_CL might be different for the subgroups? Erik
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________________________________________ From: [email protected] [[email protected]] on behalf of Paul Hutson [[email protected]] Sent: Tuesday, May 07, 2013 5:31 PM To: [email protected] Subject: [NMusers] Mixture model simulation Dear Users: I note the Jan 26, 2013 response to Nick Holford's query about results from the use of the $MIX mixture model for simulation. I have created a data set of N=100 subjects using R to randomly distribute their covariates, both continuous and categorical. I then ran the following sim with SUBPOP=1 to generate their corresponding DV values using the following code: ; SIMULATION CTL $PROBLEM SIM 2COMP $INPUT ID TIME AMT DV WT HT BMI BSA GFR AGE SEX TOB EVID $DATA MethodSim1.CSV IGNORE=# $SUBROUTINES ADVAN4 TRANS4 $SIMULATION (12345) SUBPROBLEMS=1 ONLYSIMULATION $MIX NSPOP=2 P(1)=THETA(7) P(2)=1.0-THETA(7) $PK KA=THETA(1)* EXP(ETA(1)); ETA removed in subsequent fitting of data CL1=THETA(2)*((WT/70)**0.75) ; non-renal clearance of subpop1 CL2=THETA(3)*((WT/70)**0.75); non-renal clearance of subpop1 CLr=(GFR*60/1000)*0.5 ; renal clearance Z=1 IF(MIXNUM.EQ.2) Z=0 CL=(Z*(CL1 + CLr) + (1.0-Z)*(CL2 + CLr))* EXP(ETA(2)) V2 = THETA(4)*(WT/70)*EXP(ETA(3)) Q = THETA(5)*(WT/70)**0.75 V3 =THETA(6)*(WT/70) S2=V2 $ERROR IPRE = F W1=F DEL = 0 IF(IPRE.LT.0.001) DEL = 1 IRES = DV-IPRE; NEGATIVE TREND IS OVERESTIMATING IPRED WRT DV IWRE = IRES/(W1+DEL) Y=F*(1+ERR(1)) $THETA (2); KAS $THETA (0.1); CL1 $THETA (5); CL2 $THETA (5); VC $THETA (12); Q $THETA (40); VP $THETA (0.4); FZ $OMEGA 0 FIXED; IEKA $OMEGA 0 FIXED; IECL $OMEGA 0 FIXED; IEV2 $SIGMA 0.03; $TABLE ID TIME AMT DV WT HT BMI BSA GFR AGE SEX TOB EVID NOPRINT NOHEADER NOAPPEND FILE=SimData.txt However, when I come back and attempt to model the simulated data set, my ETA1 on CL (note difference from the simulation ctl above) still shows a bimodal distribution. With the incorporation of the $MIXture model , I would expect a unimodal distribution of ETA_CL entered on 0. Can the community please advise? ;FITTED CTL $MIX NSPOP=2 P(1)=THETA(7) P(2)=1.0-THETA(7) $PK KA=THETA(1) CL1=THETA(2)*((WT/70)**0.75) CL2=THETA(3)*((WT/70)**0.75) RS=THETA(8) CLr=(GFR*60/1000)*RS Z=1 IF(MIXNUM.EQ.2) Z=0 CL=((Z*CL1 + CLr) + ((1.0-Z)*CL2 + CLr))*EXP(ETA(1)) V2 = THETA(4)*(WT/70)*EXP(ETA(2) Q = THETA(5)*(WT/70)**0.75 V3 =THETA(6)*(WT/70) Thanks Paul -- Paul R. Hutson, Pharm.D. Associate Professor UW School of Pharmacy T: 608.263.2496 F: 608.265.5421
May 07, 2013 Paul Hutson Mixture model simulation
May 07, 2013 Leonid Gibiansky Re: Mixture model simulation
May 07, 2013 Mats Karlsson RE: Mixture model simulation
May 07, 2013 Erik Olofsen RE: Mixture model simulation